Mt 28:1: "In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre." This is the text of the King James Version (KJV), but the basic Greek text speaks of a different day, namely of a Sabbath: 

οψε (opse; evening, late) δε (de; but) σαββατων (sabbaton; Sabbath/s) τη (te; on/to the) επιφωσκουση (epiphoskouse; lighting up, dawn) εις (eis; into) μιαν (mian; a, one) σαββατων (sabbaton; Sabbath/s) ηλθεν (elthen; came) μαριαμ (mariam; Mary)...

Translated: But on the Sabbath evening, when the light began to come (at dawn) on the one Sabbath/s, came Mary...

The comparison of the basic Greek text with the King James Bible proves that to support the theory of the alleged resurrection of Jesus on a Sunday, nine translation errors were made in one sentence:

1. οψε (evening) was removed from the Bible
2. after (μετα = meta), end (τελος = telos) or "when the Sabbath was over" (διαγενομένου) was added to the Bible

3. the first σαββατων (Sabbath in Mt 28:1a) has been erased in some Bibles 

4. the second σαββατων (Sabbath in Mt 28:1b) has been erased, although it appears twice in the basic text of Mt 28:1 
5. one (μιαν = mian) has been removed from the Bible (mia is a cardinal number)
6. first (πρωτη = prote) was added to the Bible (cf. Mark 16:9; prote is an ordinal number) 
7. day (ημερα = hemera) was added to the Bible; an new day instead of the Sabbath day

8. week (εβδομαδα = ebdomada) was added to the Bible
9. Sunday (ημερα του ηλιου or ηλίου ημερα = heliou hemera) was added in some modern Bible translations

However, there are many Catholic and Protestant Bibles that have been translated correctly (see below).

Especially Mt 28:1 shows the chaotic situation in many translations for a short and simple sentence that every Jewish and Christian child in the first church understood. If the theologians do not have the appropriate knowledge of the biblical calendar and the biblical order of days and feast days, it is impossible for them to understand the meaning of Matthew. The facts:

In order to avoid misunderstandings and interpretations from the beginning, God inspired Matthew to formulate his text in such a way that he uses the word σαββατων (Sabbath) twice in one sentence in the same grammatical form. This was to make it clear to all people that it is only about the 100% same Sabbath on which the women came to the tomb. It is pure falsification to mention the Sabbath once and to replace it with Sunday or week the second time. God meant the Sabbath twice in just one sentence! The free Bible program ISA3 (Scripture4All) shows the literal translation and the grammar, including the Concordant Literal Version (CLV):

The letters marked in grey indicate those words that have been inserted for better understanding. The CLV translation can be understood by every child and it comes to a completely different result than King James:

"Now it is the evening of the sabbaths. At the lighting up into one of the sabbaths came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to behold the sepulcher." (see Scripture4All).

Anyone can do a Bible translation, but no one can change the Greek original of the Word of God (the "Holy Scriptures" as the Catholic Church calls it). All existing basic Greek texts (manuscripts) speak only of what happened "on a Sabbath". The Sabbath is clearly named by name and no other day. The corresponding Greek words for week (εβδομαδα), Lord's day (κυριακη) or Sunday (ηλίου ημερα) are deliberately not mentioned. Anyone who inserts these words into the New Testament and at the same time erases the Sabbath falsifies the Word of God. In the translation of Mt 28,1 the following results cannot possibly come out: "on the first day of the week" or "on Sunday" or "on the Lord's Day" or "after the Sabbath" or "after the Sabbath day". 

The evangelists were simple but not stupid people. They knew exactly which words they wanted to have in their gospels and which not. They never wanted to confuse us. There is never any mention of a Sunday in the New Testament, because the evangelists were not even allowed to pronounce this pagan day of the sun god. If Matthew had not meant the Sabbath, but the "first day of the week", he would have said it. He could have used the same formulation that he (and Mark) himself mentioned earlier: "τη (on the) πρωτη (first) ημερα (day) των (of the)... (unleavened bread)" (Mt 26:17; Mk 14:12). So all he would have to do would be to replace the "unleavened bread" with the Greek word ebdomada (εβδομαδα = week), and we would already have the Sunday Resurrection. It is a lie when some encyclopedias say that Matthew had to speak of the "Sabbath" here when he meant the "week", as the corresponding Greek word for "week" was supposedly not available. The uncomfortable truth is that the "ebdomada" was known to everyone long before the birth of Jesus and is even part of the Bible, namely the Greek translation of the OT, the Septuagint (LXX; cf. week). The Greek word for "week" also exists in numerous extra-biblical literature (e.g. in the books of Flavius Josephus, who lived at the same time and in the same geographical area as the Evangelists. The Greek "week" (εβδομαδα, εβδομαδας) means literally "a period of seven" or "seveness" and existed long before the English, Spanish and German language and today's theologians even existed. Sunday does not occur once in the entire Bible and the theologians wish for the resurrection of Jesus on that day? If Matthew had not meant "on a Sabbath" but "on the first day of the week", he would have written this: "την πρωτη ημερα της εβδομαδας."

Matthew could also have used the same formulation that is found in Mk 16:1, which all Bible translators correctly translated as "after the Sabbath" or "when the Sabbath had passed". But Matthew did not speak of "after the Sabbath", but of "on the Sabbath", in the "evening of the Sabbath", that is to say of the dark phase of the Sabbath, when the light just comes on the "one Sabbath" morning. 

All in all, the evangelists in the resurrection chapter mention the Sabbath seven (7) times, the number of completeness. Then how can some priests and pastors claim that Sunday is meant, which is not mentioned once in the entire Bible? And on the other hand, is the day that has been blessed and sanctified since creation to be abolished and converted into a preparation day for Sunday, the holiday of the murderers of Jesus? What kind of logic is this?  

Satan has succeeded in getting worldly rulers, priests and pastors to spread the false doctrine that the plural σαββατων is supposed to mean week, Sunday or "after the Sabbath". The fact that in Mt 28:1 the plural is used twice, that is according to special rules in the ancient Greek language something completely normal. This is also proven by the translation of the 4th of the 10 commandments (Ex 20:8) in the Septuagint, where this same plural σαββατων was used to describe the ONE single Hebrew Shabbat (singular). Moreover, Mk 16:9 speaks of the Sabbath in the singular (not plural), so it is 100% clear that only the Sabbath can be meant. Nevertheless the theologians also translated the singular as week or Sunday. It is also not possible that the plural σαββατων (Mt 28:1a; Mt 28:1b; Mk 16:2; Lk 4:16; 24:1; Jn 20:1,19; Acts 13:14; 16:13; Acts 20:7; Col 2:16), which is often mentioned in the Septuagint and 11 times in the NT, always means the Sabbath, except on the day of resurrection (see Interlinear). So it should mean Sunday for no reason? How illogical the theories of priests and pastors are, is shown by the fact that no Greek-speaking Christian could ever say "on a Sabbath day" or "on one of the Sabbaths" or "on a day of the Sabbaths", since it would automatically always have to mean "NOT on one of the Sabbaths" or "on the first day of the week" or "after the Sabbath" or "on a Sunday". This is not only illogical, but reveals how cleverly some theologians are seducing Christianity. Conversely, the question is justified: How would Matthew have formulated it if he had really meant the coming of women to the tomb "on a Sabbath morning" at the transition from the dark to the light phase at the same Sabbath day? Answer: Then he would have had to formulate the same sentence that is in Mt 28:1.

And another fact: most of the bibles on earth (including the King James Bible) have translated the first plural "σαββατων" (sabbaton) in Mt 28:1a in the singular (sabbath); so there is nothing to prevent us from translating the second sabbath in the same sentence in Mt 28:1b in the same singular as well. If the second Sabbath is stolen from the Bible and replaced by the "week" or "Sunday", then this is a manipulation of the Word of God. When God mentions the Sabbath 70 times in the NT, he means 70 times the Sabbath day. 

Google translates "εις μιαν σαββατων ηλθεν μαρια" correctly as "on a Saturday, Mary came" (not "on a Sunday"). As can be clearly seen, Matthew would have had to use completely different words if he had meant "on the first day of the week" (την πρωτη ημερα της εβδομαδας).

Other online translation programmes such as DeepL also confirm the Sabbath:

And this is how it should have been written in the Greek text if God had not meant a Sabbath but the first day of the week:

Matthew could express himself very well. He wrote that the women were on their way when it was still dark, when it was just beginning to get light. The basic Greek text in Mt 28:1a mentions the "evening of the Sabbath" (οψε σαββατων), that is, the dark phase on a Sabbath, because the women went to the tomb "when it was still dark", as John emphasizes (John 20:1). Matthew writes that both the night phase and the day phase were "a Sabbath" and speaks quite precisely of the transition from one phase to the other on the same Sabbath day. So it must be exactly the middle of a whole Sabbath day. This is easy to understand, since the sunrise was always in the middle of every biblical or Israelite calendar day, and still is today. It was not logical for the Jews to divide a night, so by the Hebrew word "erev" (evening) they meant the whole night phase (see definition). But according to our present Roman calendar, a day begins at midnight. Therefore, when the day begins after midnight, we no longer speak of "evening" but of the "morning" of a new day and have difficulty understanding what Matthew meant. But all Jews and all Christians of the early church have understood the saying of Matthew. He mentions the word επιφωσκουση, which means the dawning of the early morning, that is, the lighting up, as the parallel passages prove (Mk 16:2; Lk 24:1; Jn 20:1).

KJV: "In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary." The translation of the King James Bible is definitely wrong, because in the end of the Sabbath it does not become light but dark. The Sabbath already ends at sunset. If the women were to go to the tomb at the end of the weekly Sabbath, they would have to walk 12 hours (the whole night) until sunrise on Sunday morning. 

The word "opse" (οψε) does not mean "end" or "after" but "evening" or "late". It is the same word as in Mk 11:19; 13:35, where the KJV always translated it as "evening" (not "end"). The related word can even be found in John 20:19. So if somebody want to translate Mt 28:1 in this way, then he must do the same with the other verses as well, and he will realize that it only makes nonsense. In other words: Only in Mt 28:1 should this same word mean "end" or "after", just because someone doesn't like the day of God (Sabbath) and wish for Sunday in the Bible? In no language in the world has "evening" ever also meant "end" or "after". This is the new definition people think up who do not respect the word of God and want something else, i.e. the Sunday. These are the same people who also replace the words "Sabbath" with "week" and "one" with "first". Question: What ancient Greek word would God have had to use if he had meant the "evening"? Answer: "opse" again? It has the Strong No 3796 and the verses in Mk 11:19 and 13:35, already mentioned before the events of Mt 28:1, have shown the whole world how this 100% exact same word is to be understood in Mt 28:1. See also the grammatical variation "οψιος" (opsios; Strong No. 3798 with 15 occurrences; always translated as "evening", never as "end" or "after"). Mt 28:1 is not the only exception, quite to the contrary, the use of the same word in other biblical passages confirms the "evening" in Mt 28:1. And Mk 13:35 is so easy to understand. Jesus said: "Watch ye therefore: for ye know not when the master of the house cometh, at even [οψε, opse, evening; not end nor after], or at midnight, or at the cockcrowing, or in the morning" (KJV). Here Jesus counts the four night watches and one of them is "opse", the exact same word "οψε" as in Mt 28:1!!! Jesus Christ has therefore answered our question and definition of this word himself. Do you accept this?

Also the translation with "late" would even be correct, because half of the Sabbath (more than 50% in spring) has already passed at sunrise. For the word "end" there are other Greek words and several options, e.g. "telos" (Strong No. 5056 with 41 occurrences). And for "after" there is for example the word "μετα" (meta, Strong No. 3326 with 473 occurrences) and for "past" there is the word "διαγίνομαι" (Strong No. 1230, 3 occurrences). You find this word even in Mk 16:1, because the women prepared the ointments after the High Sabbath (15th Nisan) had passed (Mk 16:1) and they came to the tomb "early on the first Sabbath" (17th Nisan; Mk 16:9). In this year 2020 there was the same sequence of days at Passover as there was at the Exodus from Egypt and in the year Jesus died (see figure below).

The following figure shows that Jesus has fulfilled the sign of the Messiah, the most important sign in the history of the universe. He did not rise from the dead after 1.5 days, but after "3 days and 3 nights":

Since the FEMININE mia (μια, one) appears before the NEUTRUM Sabbath, many translators think that after the mia the also FEMININE day (ημερα, hemera) should be mentioned, which was often not written out in the ancient Greek text, but was meant. And this is also correct. Then the form of speech "on a day of the Sabbaths" (ημερα των σαββατων or ημερα του σαββατου) arises, which in the ancient Greek language (due to special rules of language) has always meant nothing else but "on a Sabbath day" in the singular, as can also be clearly proved on the basis of other biblical passages in the New Testament (Lk 4:16; 13:14,16; 14:5; Acts 13; 16:13). The Septuagint provides further proof here, for the Hebrew "yom ha-Shabbat" (day of the Sabbath, in the singular) was translated in Exodus 20:8 as "a day of the Sabbaths" (ημερα των σαββατων in the plural; see Interlinear text). Furthermore, the Sabbath is also a day and Greek days are feminine. The Sabbath remains in any case.

Many translators have preferred to translate "on the first of the Sabbaths" or "on the first Sabbath" instead of "on one of the Sabbaths", as it should be correctly stated. Although this is not literally translated from Greek, it is nevertheless correct in this case, seeing that according to the biblical calendar and Mk 16:9 it is actually an event "on the first Sabbath" of the seven weekly Sabbaths until Pentecost. Everyone understood this expression at the time of Jesus, since all seven Sabbaths up to Pentecost were counted individually. It has nothing at all to do with "on the first day of the week", since it is about the "first Sabbath". After the "first Sabbath" followed the "second Sabbath" and after the "seventh Sabbath" Pentecost was celebrated on the 50th day. But as many Christians in an arrogant attitude despise the OT and the calendar of God, they cannot possibly know what Mark meant by the "first Sabbath" in the singular.

Will Kinney in his article (2009) entitled "What about Young's 'literal' translation?" gives a commentary that reveals the terrible ignorance of many Christians about the Bible and great arrogance in argumentation:

"WHAT in the world does “on the eve of the sabbathS” even mean? Were the sabbaths to end after this moment in time? How many sabbaths had been before this one? And what is "the first of the sabbaths". Does he mean to tell us that there were no Sabbaths before this one? It is a ridiculous translation, and Green’s “literal” is just as bad.

Greens “literal” (Yuk, yuk) says: “But late IN THE SABBATHS, AT THE DAWNING INTO THE FIRST OF THE SABBATHS, Mary the Magdalene and the other Mary came to gaze upon the grave.”

This makes absolutely NO sense at all. Green also has a direct contradiction in just this one verse. We have "late in the Sabbaths" (how many days is that?), alongside "the first of the Sabbaths". How many Sabbaths can there possibly be BEFORE the FIRST of the Sabbaths? As for your claim that “This term can only reference the Hebrew sabbath of rest which was commanded on the last day of the week. But in the KJV (and others) it has been rendered as day or week... "There is only one Bible that has stood the test of time and its critics. There is only one Bible that is believed and defended by thousands of Bible believers today as being the true “book of the LORD”- the Authorized King James Holy Bible - now about to celebrate 400 years of being THE Bible of the English speaking people" [Source].

Will Kinney can spare himself these disrespectful and mocking words "yuk yuk", because he embarrasses himself to the utmost with his text and reveals that he has no idea of the ancient Greek language, no idea of the biblical definition of the day (with "evening") and also no idea of God's calendar and instead wants to falsify the inspired text (which God has given us) by discrediting translators. Is he capable of translating the NT any better? His statement alone "This makes absolutely NO sense at all... How many Sabbaths can there possibly be BEFORE the FIRST of the Sabbaths?" shows that he should read the entire Bible first before spreading such nonsense. With his argumentation, he wants to seduce the children of God into pagan feast days and changes to the Bible, which we must warn against according to Ephesians 5:11. Those who remain silent are complicit.

Mt 28,1 is not about how many Sabbaths there must have been before Jesus' resurrection, but about the fact that this Sabbath was the first of the seven Sabbaths which, according to Leviticus 23, must be counted every year between Passover and Pentecost and which can be found in EVERY (!) Jewish and biblical calendar. Mark writes this very clearly (Mark 16:9), so that all questions disappear and all Christians do not argue, but know that it is only about this one special "first Sabbath", which is on Passover between the two High Sabbaths (on the 15th and 21st of Nisan). This was especially clear to observe in 2023, when the biblical and Jewish calendars fell on the same days of Passover, allowing every Christian to see the calculation of the 50 days until Pentecost with the 7 Sabbaths. What "makes absolutely NO sense at all" to Will Kinney was and is completely understandable and logical for us Christians, because we do not follow the Pope's Catholic calendar, but God's calendar, so that many questions and misunderstandings disappear quite automatically. It is so simple, only the theologians make it complicated because they want Sunday to be in the Bible and therefore have to twist words. So they simply say that the Sabbath supposedly also means week or Sunday. No, that's not the case in any language and the ancient Greek language was already able to distinguish all words exactly when the English language didn't even exist yet.

And the King James Bible he so praises is full of errors, not only because it postpones the day of Jesus' resurrection, and not only because it translates the words soul, hades, sheol, grave, hell in a completely chaotic way (so that all readers of the KJV cannot even know what is going on with the dead), but also because it turns a biblical Passover into a Catholic Easter in the Acts of the Apostles. And this is supposed to be the version that was supposedly inspired by God? No, thank you.

The translators Young and Green (see quotes below) did not literally speak of the "one of the Sabbaths" in Mt 28:1, but of the "first of the Sabbaths", but this is completely correct in terms of content, because it is precisely about this "first Sabbath" of a series of 7 Sabbaths until Pentecost, but not about the 7 Sundays between Easter Sunday and the Pope's Pentecost Sunday, as Kinney would like.

See the chapters:

- The KJV is not inspired by God

- Definition of the words day and evening

- Definition of week and Sabbath

- No Sunday: The possible ancient Greek idioms to express a Sunday

- 3 days and 3 nights, the sign of the Messiah is not a turbo resurrection after 1.5 days

- the plural Sabbaths σαβββατων in the ancient Greek language

- the biblical calendar and the 7 feasts of God

Something very important: Even if someone translates "opse" (evening) as "end" or "after", which is wrong, but even then there is no problem with the content, because the women came to the tomb "after the Sabbath" (the 15th Nisan) and "on a Sabbath" (17th Nisan). Any child who knows the calendar of God understands this, see the figure below and Interlinear Bible text and "three days and three nights" (the sign of the Messiah).

As we already know, during the seven-day Passover feast there is not just one, but three Sabbaths, namely the two major High Sabbaths (annual Sabbaths) with the one minor weekly Sabbath in between. Thus there are also 3 preparation days. The 15th Nisan is the "first Sabbath" of the festival of unleavened bread and the first Highl Sabbath of the year. Then comes the "second Sabbath" (the weekly Sabbath) of the festival and the 21st Nisan (High Sabbath) is the "third Sabbath" of the festival of unleavened bread (the whole Passover festival). But the "first Sabbath" AFTER the High Sabbath (15th Nisan) is always the "first Sabbath" (17th Nisan in 2020) of the seven weekly Sabbaths until Pentecost. That is why it has been given this name, and it is exactly this Sabbath that Mark meant (Mk 16:9). So if someone would like to translate the Greek οψε (Mt 28:1a) instead of "on the evening of the Sabbath" rather "after the Sabbath", he is welcome to do so. For then the period after the High Sabbath would be meant, and the coming of light on the immediately following "one weekly Sabbath," or the "first Sabbath" of a chain of seven Sabbaths up to Pentecost. So, in terms of content nothing changes. Jesus did not resurrect on the High Sabbath (15th Nisan; Passover, annual Sabbath), but only on the following weekly Sabbath, the 7th day of the week (on 17th Nisan), that is AFTER the High Sabbath (feast Sabbath). This reminds us of the statements of Mark, because according to Mark 16:1 the women prepared the ointments "AFTER the Sabbath [after the High Sabbath]", or "when the Sabbath had passed". But they went to the tomb again "on a Sabbath" (=the weekly Sabbath according Mk 16:2), i.e. after the High Sabbath or on the "first Sabbath" (according to Mk 16:9). After the Sabbath is always before the Sabbath, as there are always 3 Sabbaths in just one week at Passover.

Jesus rose from the dead after "3 days and 3 nights". That was his sign of the Messiah to the world. It is completely unimportant in terms of content whether someone translates Mt 28:1a in such a way that the transition from the night phase to the light phase is meant "ON A weekly SABBATH" or whether he means the time "AFTER A yearly SABBATH", because in any case the women went to the tomb "on a Sabbath morning". That is the important thing, and there is no doubt about it. Therefore the warning to all translators is legitimate: Anyone who translates οψε (evening) in Mt 28:1a with "after" is allowed to do so here, but under no circumstances should he add the word "after" to the Bible again in Mt 28:1b, for here it is demonstrably NOT contained in the basic Greek text! Instead we are told of an event on a Sabbath morning. 

After the Sabbath is therefore before the Sabbath. The Bible is so easy to understand. No matter whether Mt 28:1a is translated as "on the evening of the Sabbath" or "late on the sabbath" or "after the Sabbath", in no case does Sunday come out of it. When the evangelists talk about what happened "on a Sabbath", they can only mean a weekly Sabbath, because neither the 15th Nisan (High Sabbath) nor the 21st Nisan (High Sabbath) are considered to be days of Jesus' resurrection. All the scholars of the world agree on this. It is not possible to mention the Sabbath in Mt 28:1a, but to erase the Sabbath in Mt 28:1b. Matthew did not want to confuse or divide us on this question. It is only for this reason that he mentioned the same word "Sabbath/s" twice, so that there would be no discussion and no quarrel at all. He could not have written it more clearly in the ancient Greek language.

If someone wants to translate οψε (evening) rather as "late on the Sabbath", he is welcome to do so, because when it starts to get light in the morning, 50% of the Sabbath has already passed, so it is indeed already late.

There are hundreds of correct Bible translations worldwide that speak of either the coming of women "on a Saturday" or "on a Sabbath" or "on the first Sabbath". Of particular importance are the approximately 50 German Bibles, which have been translated particularly well. These include not only the old editions, such as the world's first printed Bible in a national language ever (Mentelin 1466) or the world-famous Luther Bible 1522, but also the completely new prints, which have only appeared in recent years (DaBhaR 1989, KNT 2007, Scr4All-De 2014, CNMB 2015). Several new English Bibles are also very commendable (see below for examples).

Even the ancient Catholic Vulgate of 382 AD correctly translates Mt 28:1a. As any good Latin dictionary will show, it speaks of "the evening of the Sabbath" ("vespere sabbati") and not of a "day AFTER the Sabbath". In Mt 28:1b the Vulgate does not speak of the "first day of the week" or the "day after the Sabbath", but of "in primam sabbati", that is to say "on the first Sabbath". It is true that Jerome, instead of speaking of "on a (una) Sabbath", as it should literally be called, preferred to speak of the "prima (first) Sabbath", because the parallel passage in Mk 16:9 also spoke of "πρωτη σαββατου" = "first Sabbath"; but in his Catholic translation of the Bible it is clearly still a matter of "a Sabbath" and not of "the day after". The Latin phrases "after the Sabbath" (post sabbati) or "on the first day of the week" (primus dies hedomadae) or "on Sunday" (dies solis; solis die) or "on the Lord's day" (dominicus) have never been used in this. However, since the author of the Vulgate commissioned by the Pope did not take Jewish thinking into consideration in the division of the day and was unaware that Matthew was speaking here only of the transition from the dark to the light phase, that is, of the just becoming light in the morning on the same Sabbath day, Jerome formed a formulation that was difficult to understand and wrote "quae [which] lucesit [lights up; shines, glow] on the first Sabbath". This error with a mysterious "shining" or "radiating" (instead of becoming light) was adopted by many translators after him (including Luther), and from a simple statement of the apostle he created a complicated and for the reader illogical formulation, which also caused problems for other translators. In Mt 28:1 the Vulgate correctly uses two sabbaths in the singular in the same sentence. It is a Hebrew foreign word adopted from Judaism into Latin and refers only to the last day of the Biblical/Jewish week. All Latin-speaking people therefore never associated the week (Latin hebdomada) with sabbati (Sabbath), because for them the Sabbath was a holiday of the Jews, which was held from Friday evening to Saturday evening and from which they clearly distanced themselves. They also had a different daily and weekly schedule and also other holidays. 

The first book of Europe, and at the same time the first book on earth, was the world-famous Latin Gutenberg Bible of 1452, and what does this first book in the history of mankind proclaim? Answer: The resurrection of Jesus "on a Sabbath" (Latin una sabbati; Lk 24:1; Jn 20:1) and "on the first Sabbath" (Latin prima sabbati in the singular). Also all 18 pre-Lutheran Bibles and the first printed Bible in a European language in the whole of America (German Saur Bible 1743), mention twice in Mt 28:1 the "Saturday" or "Sabbath" as the day of Jesus' resurrection and not the day after. For Martin Luther the biblical Resurrection of the Lord was clearly "on a Sabbath", but he too was influenced by the text of the Vulgate. Therefore he spoke in Mt 28,1b instead of "one" now of the "first Sabbath". In the first part of the sentence in Mt 28:1a he correctly writes "on the evening of the Sabbath". But in the second part he translates literally, but not from Greek, but from the Latin text. Instead of "on the lighting up on the one Sabbath", the illogical sentence "which begins on the morning of the first holiday of the Sabbaths" arises. No one understands this. It should not be forgotten that although the Greek text of the apostle Matthew was inspired by God, its Latin translation of Jerome was notinspired. Nevertheless, it is very laudable that neither Jerome nor Luther spoke of the "first day of the week", nor of the "day after the Sabbath", nor of "Sunday". Unfortunately, no footnote in the revisions of the Luther Bible (1912, 1984) pointed out that Jerome and Luther actually meant a Sabbath. Therefore, the 1984 Luther Bible is not the Bible translation by Martin Luther, but a new theological replacement that removed important passages from Luther's original Bible. Luther would certainly have been shocked to see what was done with his texts. It is now time to recall this ancient basic knowledge. 

In an edition printed in Augsburg in 1838 (Volume 5), the Catholic Allioli comments in a footnote to Mt 28:1:

"literally: but late on the Sabbath, but when the first day of the Sabbath dawned. For the Jews, the word Sabbath meant not only the seventh day of the week, but also the week itself."

This is nothing but theological wishful thinking and clearly a false doctrine (see week). This was never the case with the Jews, for the Sabbath has been a clearly defined term since the creation of the earth and not only since the so-called Christian Church Fathers, who introduced a new and hitherto unknown definition of the Sabbath. Allioli's footnote shows that he knew exactly how to translate, but he did not want it. There was also a Hebrew, Greek and Latin word for "week", which meant "a period of seven" (sevenness) and was never confused with the Sabbath, even before the birth of Allioli several thousand years ago. This Catholic, Protestant and free-evangelic church heresy has the aim of sowing doubt in the Word of God and of forcibly bringing the day of the sun-god and Light-bringer (Sunday) into the Bible and imposing it on Christians. For if Jesus had also risen "on a Sabbath", then nothing at all would speak for a sanctification of Sunday. It was only through this false heresy that pagans and Christians had been given a unified holiday in order to distance themselves completely from God and the Jews. All theologians should simply consider how they would describe in ancient Greek the coming of women to the tomb at the transition from the night to the light phase "on a Sabbath morning"; at the latest then they would find that they would have to use exactly the same words that Matthew used.

The Concordant Literal Version 1926 has been spreading the correct message since before World War II: "Now it is the evening of the sabbaths. At the lighting up into one of the sabbaths came Mary Magdalene..." But nobody wants to hear that, that's why most Christians prefer the King James Bible with the beloved Easter Sunday message.

Both the Geneva Bible 1599 and the King James Bible (KJV) 1611 had a big problem with Mt 28:1. This becomes clear from a clear translation error, which is still present in the new KJV today: "In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary..."). But when is the end of the Sabbath? Anyone who knows the daytime understanding of the Jews at that time and today (!) will immediately realize that this translation makes absolutely no sense at all, for a Sabbath ends on Saturday evening "when it becomes dark", but does not begin "when it becomes light" (see illustration above). Saturday begins at midnight, but the Sabbath ends/begins at the latitude of Jerusalem already at about 6 pm. If Mary had left "at the end of the Sabbath", then she would have had to leave before 6 p.m. on the Sabbath and walk the whole night through. The Sabbath would therefore have been over 12 hours ago, when Jesus rose from the dead on a Sunday morning. But the translators were aware that the Greek word οψε can by no means be translated as "after" (Greek meta; Latin post). The illogical translation of Mt 28:1 makes it clear that King James and his worldly and church associates had a major problem with the Bible and did not want the resurrection of Jesus to take place "on a Sabbath". So in Mt 28:1 they mentioned the Sabbath only once (instead of twice), and confused many Christians with an illogical sentence. The NLT 1996 and the NLB 2002 make it even easier; they omit the first Sabbath (Mt 28:1a) and simply write that the women supposedly went to the tomb "on Sunday morning", what an embarrassing translation.

There are few Christians who are familiar with the biblical calendar. Most of them don't care what God thinks or how he divides time. But there are also positive examples, because the MISB 2011 speaks in its footnotes that there were two "first Sabbaths" in the Passover week between the crucifixion and the resurrection: One was the 15th Abib, the "first Sabbath" of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, and the "later Sabbath" was the weekly "first Sabbath" of the seven weekly Sabbaths following the 15th Nisan until Pentecost. Quote MISB (Messianic Israel Standard Bible 2011): 

Mt 28,1: Now the later of the Sabbaths1, as it began to dawn on the first of the Sabbaths2, Miriam Magdalene…"

Sabbaths1: „There was two „first Sabbath“ days in Passover week. One was the 15th of Aviv, the first Sabbath of unleavened bread, and the other was the weekly Sabbath following (cf. Lev. 23:11-16). The „later“ sabbath singles out the weekly Sabbath because it came later than the Passover Sabbath on the 15th of Nisan.“

Sabbaths2: „Not first day of the week but first of the Sabbaths, and even more literally one of the sabbaths, or one of the Sabbath days if one wants to add the implied word „day“ into the text. The phrase is not indefinite, through. It refers to the first of seven sabbaths enumerated (counted) after Passover according to the commandment in Lev. 23:15. Yes, the resurrection was on the Sabbath day, just before dawn.“

Further quotations from this Bible:

• Mt 28:1a: The Greek word οψε is deceivingly translated "end" or "after" by the Church. When used with the genitive case it means later in the time period specified. And the time period specified is "Sabbaths" (σαββατων) in the plural. So the sense is the "later of the Sabbaths".  These were the two first Sabbaths in Passion week. The annual Sabbath came on Thursday that year, and was called the first on account of the first day of unleavened bread.  The following weekly Sabbath was also called "first" on account of its being the first of the seven Sabbaths that were counted after the annual Sabbath (Lev. 23:15). Matthew is designating the later of these two Sabbaths as the resurrection day...
• Mt 28:1b: The word σαββατων here is plural in the Greek. This is just another detail that the Church has swept under the rug in order to deceive the world concerning the day of Yeshua's resurrection. They have manufactured many reasoning’s' about how the plural "really" means singular, however they have to spin out yet more falsehoods to do it. The problem is a question of authority. The Church of Rome and her Protestant spin off's wants people to believe what they say.  They do not want what they say investigated and exposed.
• Mt 28:1c: Again the word is σαββατων, the common and ordinary word for "Sabbaths" in the plural. Again, we do not need to disprove the meaning of "week." We only need to establish that "Sabbaths" is the usual meaning of the word.  And anyone who has read even a little bit of Greek, or looked up σαββατων in a concordance knows that the primary sense is not "week". However, nowhere in first century literature, that in in Philo, Josephus, or older extracts of the LXX, nor in any secular Koine or Classical Greek literature is there a single example of this word meaning "week". Nor in any time before that.  The sense of "week" in all later documents traces its pedigree straight back to a lying source connected with the Church "fathers" who led it in the greatest apostasy of history. One cannot redact the linguistic meaning of "week" into eight texts in the Gospels, Acts, or the Pauline writings to establish the meaning of "week". That is circular reasoning and not proper linguistic determination of meaning. Such a procedure assumes that the Church's claims are true to begin with.
• Mt 28:1d: "one of the Sabbaths".  The Greek word μια is the cardinal number for "one" in Koine Greek. However, it is used here as a Hebraism, and is like the word אחד, which also means "first". The Hebrew for this whole phrase is אחת השבתות. The feminine gender of μια owes its usage to the fact that the word for "Sabbaths" in Hebrew is also feminine in gender. The "first of the Sabbaths" is therefore a Hebraism for a specific day. We find this in Lev. 23:15, where it says that Israel is to count seven Sabbaths after the annual Sabbath. So the "first of the Sabbaths" is the first one of these seven Sabbaths.   -  End of the quote.

We know exactly how to translate Mt 28:1a and Mt 28:1b and distance ourselves from the Sunday fairy tale of theologians who twist God's Word to establish their own dogmas and traditions, because the Lord Jesus says to them: "You have a fine way of rejecting the commandment of God in order to establish your tradition!" (Mk 7:9; Mt 15:8-9).

Besides the basic Greek text, there are many Bibles in many languages that tell of the resurrection of Jesus on a Sabbath or Saturday morning. The old German Bibles usually do not speak of the Sabbath (Sabbat), but of the Saturday (Samstag) morning when the women came to the tomb. For the list of abbreviations of the Bibles see link. The original copies of most Bibles can be downloaded as facsimiles from the Internet free of charge (see Historical Bibles). 

As can be clearly seen, over the centuries a translation chaos has arisen. It is completely impossible that the basic Greek text offers two different resurrection days, where every Christian can choose one that he would like to have. This diversity of the most varied and contradictory translations makes it clear that we can speak here of a deliberate falsification of the Word of God. In addition to the basic Greek text, there are many Bibles in many languages that tell of the resurrection of Jesus on a Sabbath or Saturday morning (see above). But there are also bad examples that are now being shown. The closer we get to the coming of Jesus Christ and the Rapture, the more Bibles dare to erase the Sabbath from the Bible and replace it with the word "Sunday".

And the reality is even worse, because some Bible programs even translate old correct German, Spanish, Italian, Swedish or Czech Bibles incorrectly (see old Bibles), because they now always turn „on a/first Sabbath/Saturday“ or „on the one/first of the Sabbaths/Saturdays“ into „on the first day of the week“ or „on a Sunday“. In concrete terms, this means that not only the statements of the ancient languages Greek and Latin are being falsified, but also those of the modern languages, where Bibles that have already been correctly translated into national languages are being falsified again. Apparently, you cannot speak of a Sabbath or Saturday in any language in the world because it supposedly always means „on the first day of the week“ or „on a Sunday“. This shows how demonic the whole thinking of some people is. They cannot be convinced by arguments, but want to see Sunday in the Bible with all their might and by force. They come up with the craziest arguments just to seduce the Bride of Christ and take her away from God's biblical calendar with its feast days to ancient pagan feast days that are not mentioned once in the entire Bible.

For the list of abbreviations of the Bibles see link. The original copies of most Bibles can be downloaded as facsimiles from the Internet free of charge (see Historical Bibles). 

 "Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. Abstain from all appearance of evil"

(1Thess 5:21-22)

"Take no part in the unfruitful works of darkness, but instead expose them"

(Epheser 5:11)